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Blessings and Rights
Before the 20th century, if you had certain heart conditions there wasn't really anything you could do. Your life was most certainly going to be cut short (perhaps even as a child) and that's just the way things were.
In modern times, though, advances in medical technology have allowed previously fatal conditions to be treated with surgery, including even complete heart transplants and artificial hearts, which allow many people who would previously have been condemned to an early death to have the blessing of an extended life. Modern science and medicine has provided a large number of blessings for mankind that human civilization in previous times could only have dreamed about.
Notice I used the word 'blessing' twice. This is an important word, because I've noticed that the word 'blessing' often gets replaced with the word 'right'--often with serious consequences.
First, defining our terms:
A right is something that's given to you that in a sense already belongs to you--it's something that you should have had from the beginning and should always belong to you now and forever.
A blessing is something that's given to you that's above and beyond the things you already have--something extra, not something that you were obligated to receive in the first place.
A right is like a government giving its citizens the ability to choose--a religion, for example--without having the government make choices for you--something that fundamentally all people should have all the time.
A blessing would be like receiving a birthday gift from a relative--something extra that they were not obligated to give you.
The problem is: what happens when the words 'right' and 'blessing' get confused?
Example: Young Mary has a congenital heart defect since birth. In previous decades, there would have been no hope for her, but with modern technology there is a newly developed procedure by which her heart defect can be overcome.
Now...does Mary have the 'right' to the procedure, or is it a 'blessing'?
If Mary had lived 200, 50, or even ten years ago the question would have been moot because the procedure didn't exist. Now that it does, though, does Mary now have an inalienable right to have it performed? Certainly, she would have the opportunity to have it done...if she has the money. The question is does society have the obligation to give it to her regardless of cost simply because it's possible? Does Mary now suddenly have a 'right' which everyone else with her condition throughout all the previous years of human civilization did not have?
Or...is the procedure a 'blessing'--something that Mary can obtain for herself (if she can afford it) which will give her a life benefit above and beyond what everyone like her was able to obtain in previous times? If not, well she's lost nothing since she's no different than any of the others throughout history who had her condition, right?
This is a key issue, because universal health insurance is a big debate topic in the US. But look at what health insurance is, though...it's someone else who's willing to pay your hospital bills for you.
Through my work, my family and I are covered by our company health plan, which means I only have to pay for about 20% of my family's health expenses. In other words, someone's willing to pay 80% of my medical bills. That's a wonderful blessing for my family, but it's hardly a right--how could I sit there and say, "It's my right that someone else pay most of my hospital expenses..."
Yet, that's what a lot of people are saying: health insurance is a 'right' of all US citizens--that everyone should have their medical bills paid by someone else.
(Now, if they said: medical costs should be lower so they're more affordable to poorer people--that would be completely different--and very reasonable. Very few people phrase it that way, though--it's almost always 'everyone should have their bills paid by someone else...')
Note that I'm not against universal health care by any means. If there's a universal health plan that's financially feasible--I'm all for it. I'm just objecting to the notion that health care--even life-saving health care--is a 'right' of mankind, rather than the 'blessing' it is.
In a sense it all comes down to attitude. When you look at things as 'blessings', you're not only happier and more thankful when you get them, but it doesn't bother you as much when you don't get them--since they were above and beyond what you "normally" have anyway. When you look at things as 'rights', though--you're not thankful or happy to receive things because you think you should have had them all along--and you're much more likely to complain when they're not there. In other words, 'blessings' people naturally focus on the extra things they have, while 'rights' people focus on what they don't have. 'Rights' people are much more likely to compare themselves to others and think "It's not fair that he/she has {something} and I don't. I should have that also since it's my 'right'" whereas the 'blessings' people don't care what others have since they themselves already have more than they expected.
I think more people need to develop a 'blessings' attitude--an "It'd be great if I got that, but if not, it's okay. I'm lucky enough as it is" attitude--then there would be less focusing on what we don't have (and others do) and more on what we do have (that many others don't). That would mean less complaining and less jealousy--and greater happiness for everyone overall.
June 9, 2004 in Current Affairs | Permalink
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Comments
You know...I could really use an editor. Some of the things I write need some serious structural editing for tightness and clarity. With blogging, though, I just don't have time to sit on posts for a couple of days and pour over it with a red pen. Oh, well...
The message is still there, which I stand behind, but you'll have to excuse the post being a little long and unfocused.
Posted by: The Baron | Jun 9, 2004 1:41:13 PM
"Does Mary now suddenly have a 'right' which everyone else with her condition throughout all the previous years of human civilization did not have?"
What if the question were instead phrased:
"Does Mary now suddenly have a 'right' to the same health which everyone else in the world without her condition does have?"
Posted by: dp | Jun 9, 2004 3:19:31 PM
Good question...I actually cut a whole section of the post that discussed this issue (the post is too long as it is)
I didn't compare Mary directly to healthy people because in the world we live in, people have varying degrees of health--and I'm talking inherent health, not health affected by behavior. It's part of God's plan that, for whatever reason, some people are born and live healthy, and others are born--like the imaginary Mary--with serious physical defects and health problems. If you want to ask why isn't Mary healthy like 'normal' people, then you have to ask (or blame) God--which many people do. However the post isn't about why God's plan contains disease and birth defects (I discuss it a little bit in my 'Charly' movie analysis) since that's a whole different discussion.
Given that Mary IS unhealthy for whatever reason, just like many others throughout history with the same defect, my question is does she have the absolute 'right' to the best health human technology can provide considering:
(a) she can't afford it
(b) many others before her had no such opportunity
(c) God apparently doesn't think perfect health is an absolute 'right' for anyone...pre-resurrection, anyway.
Posted by: The Baron | Jun 9, 2004 3:38:57 PM
What is the difference between the cost of medical care being lowered and the cost of care beign subsidized? Isn't the net result the same? Isn't someone in each case paying to make the medical affordable?
If you lower medical costs from current levels, the loss has to be made up somehow. If it means firing some employees from the emdical provider, for example, then those employees are paying for the care by receiving a negative salary.
Posted by: Mary Siever | Jun 9, 2004 7:25:25 PM
What is the difference between the cost of medical care being lowered and the cost of care being subsidised? Isn't the net result the same? Isn't someone in each case paying to make the medical affordable?
If you lower medical costs from current levels, the loss has to be made up somehow. If it means firing some employees from the medical provider, for example, then those employees are paying for the care by receiving a negative salary.
Posted by: Mary Siever | Jun 9, 2004 7:25:50 PM
Whoops.
That was me posting.
Sorry about that.
Posted by: Kim Siever | Jun 9, 2004 7:26:36 PM
I think you are mischaracterizing health insurance, thereby detracting from your point. I would argue that the opportunity to buy health insurance is (given current government policy) a blessing, but the payments received from the insurance company are not.
First, the procedures that will or will not be paid for by an insurance company are governed by the terms of the policy. If your premiums are paid up, you do indeed have the right the procedures that the policy states are covered. The insurance company is not doing you any favor by paying for such treatment. It willingly assumed the risk and is just fulfilling its obligation (and, in most cases, still making a nice profit).
As for the premiums, your employer may be making the payments, but it is money out of your pocket. Most economists agree that health insurance premiums paid by the employer reduce other forms of compensation, mostly cash wages. The biggest difference is that you have to pay taxes on wages, but not on the benefit you receive by having your employer pay the insurance premiums. So the government is actually picking up a portion of the cost of private insurance, but you are paying most of it. (Medicaid, of course, is a different story).
Posted by: Last_lemming | Jun 10, 2004 9:49:33 AM
You're right--I didn't specifically mention insurance premiums. The fact that my insurance covers 80% of medical costs isn't out of the goodness of their hearts, but because my company and I together pay the premiums. (buying a service, essentially)
But, that's not the 'health care crisis' in America as far as I've seen. Anyone can get health insurance right now--IF they can afford the premiums, no different than everyone being able to get any medical care they need with enough cash. (There are exceptions, I'm sure--highly unhealthy people whom insurance companies deem uninsurable at any price--but the 'crisis' isn't about them, either...)
But, unless I've totally misinterpreted the universal health care discussions in the US, the issue isn't the availability of health insurance, but the fact that poor people can't afford the premiums--but people insist that they should be covered by some kind of national insurance anyway--paid not by premiums but by taxes. I haven't gotten the sense that the issue is lowering the cost of insurance for all citizens, but rather having the government cover a large percentage of everyone's medical bills WITHOUT them having to pay premiums other than through higher taxes. If so, then it really is basically saying 'someone else should pay for my medical expenses', not 'I want a better opportunity to BUY medical insurance (a service) for myself.'
Posted by: The Baron | Jun 10, 2004 10:50:40 AM
Moving from the specific instance back to the general concept (the confusion of rights and blessings, although I'm going to use the word "priveleges" simply to avoid the connotation of divine fiat and inscrutable purpose for my comments):
I think the reason that priveleges get mischaracterized as rights is because, at a certain level, they do overlap, to wit: I have the right to access priveleges on the same basis that other people do. The right in question isn't to the privelege itself, but to equal access to it.
So, for example, I don't have the "right" to a driver's license; it is a privelege to have one. But if I am denied one for some unrelated reason -- because I voted Communist, for example, or because I'm African-American -- then I can make the case that unequal access to the privelege is violating my rights.
Back to your example, then, the question becomes, "Do people have unequal access to healthcare?" Well, yeah, if their ability to pay is the determiner. Is that inability to pay integral to receiving the privelege, or is it as irrelevant as party affiliation or ethnicity? Ah, there's where the debate will rage long...
No, I've got no actual answers. I just like recasting the questions.
Posted by: Nathan | Jun 10, 2004 11:05:02 AM
Congratulate me. I misspelled "privilege" every d****d time.
Posted by: Nathan | Jun 10, 2004 11:06:45 AM